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2010 que 37
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madhur1987
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2010 que 37
pls someone help....why under buy 1 get 1 free scheme.... the optimal demand is still x* and y*. he can get more of both goods with same money income and increase his utility than why not option a is correct???
madhur1987
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Re: 2010 que 37
pls if someone can give reason for this?
duck
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Re: 2010 que 37
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by madhur1987
Hi.. :)
Its because that bundle is not affordable.
Had it been affordable then, (x*,y*) wouldn't be a utility maximising bundle.
:)
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