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During the recent sub prime mortgage crisis, the USA government announced bail-outs for big banks for e.g. 25 billion for J.P. Morgan, 10 Billion for Merrill Lynch.
My question.
Is the bail-out money given to these banks with no expectation for any capital return to the govt? Or the term bail-out means the govt lending a loan to these companies so that they can get back on their feet and have to mandatorily repay the amount with interest to the govt in the years to come?
Regards,
Cleo
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