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This post was updated on .
My grasp over the theory of general equilibrium is tenuous, at best. Nevertheless, I'll share with you what I know.
Walras' law states that the value of aggregate excess demand for all goods is always zero, since agents must always satisfy their budget constraints. If it's zero at all price vectors, it must be zero, in particular, at equilibrium price vector P*.
If at P*, the aggregate excess demand for a good is negative, that is, if a good is in excess supply, its price must be zero. This is a direct implication of Walras' law. Otherwise in Walrasian equilibrium, demand must equal supply for all goods. Note that if there are k markets, you need only find a price vector at which k-1 markets clear, for according to Walras' law, the kth market should then necessarily clear.
As for your second question, try this example. U1 = min{x1,y1} and U2 = max{x2,y2}. E1 = (0,5) and E2 = (5,0). Every point inside the Edgeworth box is Pareto efficient yet a competitive equilibrium doesn't exist. This is as crude an explanation as there can be. It would be wonderful if one of the smarter people on this forum (or Amit sir himself!) could shed more light on this, for everyone's benefit.
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