the above question states that
after controlling for other variables we want to get hold of gender differences so there shud be no interaction dummy in the model as if we include the interaction dummy then we cant intrpret the coefficient by controlling the other variables. Further there are 2 categories so 1 dummy shud be included and the logic is that the coefficient of dummy variable, when we include the intercept term in the model, gives the difference in dependent variable across the categories (which is the requarement of the ques)
so ans is option a
Akshay Jain
Masters in Economics
Delhi School of Economics
2013-15