discussion_1.png why this answer is b, not d?
i am getting change in y/change in t= 1/8-1/4(k^1/2) for the relatively poor household..but not able to comprehend further..
Our Rich HH has income Y= K^2
While poor HH has income Y=k^1/2
Now Let's take the first derivative of Rich HH Y'= 2K and Y''=2, both are greater than 0
So rich HH income is increasing at an increasing rate, thus it is increasing perpetually.
Now Let's look at Poor HH Y'=1/2K^-1/2 and Y''= -1/4K^-3/2
Y'>0 while Y'' <0 so it is increasing at a decreasing rate and thus It will tend to some finite number.
That is why B
you can refer to the graphs of such derivatives it will be more clear. :)