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Without prices for capital or labour, how can you write a maximization. The profit function for both firms would be monotonically increasing. Only condition can be that MP of labour in M = MP of labour in F. This solves part a.
For part b) we need to have some idea of cost of capital to arrive at anything. How did you think it through?
If I had a gun to my head, i would say part b also has the same allocation as a because M has no use for Land(T). The subsequent questions on welfare differences would then be moot.
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