Let a comsumers preference be such that if bundle vector x is preferred to bundle vector y then qx is preferred to qy for all q>0.
Give an example of such preferences, and give a utility function consistent with the same.
Suppose a consumer has such preferences. Define a budget set with prices pi and income m. Let optimal consumption be bundle vector c. Now make all prices 3/4th of original prices, and let optimal consumption vector be d.
Better than expected. Solved it completely and was in and out within 5 minutes. Discussed an alternate method on assumption that preferences are convex. Rest they asked me my background, where did I hear about ISI, if I had a job in hand, if I had applied for other colleges etc.
They were friendly and asked good questions. Key is to be absolutely detailed as possible, like you're explaining it to a 10 year old.
Yes, these preferences mean MRS(ij) =f(qi/qj) ie. Consumer only cares about the ratio of any two quantities in his budget set. This is a property of homothetic preferences.
U=any homothetic function of n goods.
Assume function is convex, set up lagrangian for both problems/budget sets and write MRS(ij) for both, it'll be the same. So consumer demands same ratio of any two quantities for both budget sets.
So d=4c/3
To prove for nonconvex preferences, say there's a bundle y preferred to 4c/3 in the second budget set. Multiply by 3/4 both sides (using property described in beginning of question) to get 3y/4 is preferred to c. But then 3y/4 must not be affordable if c is brought under original budget set. But it satisfies the first budget constraint as y satisfying the second budget constraint gives the same condition. So there's a contradiction.