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Suppose Y and X are standardized and regression is run on the standardized variables.
What will be the relation b/w residuals ie the original error term ui and the error term ui* of new model? I m getting ui* = (ui)/SD of Y. (Where ui, ui* are all estimators nd SD stands for Standard deviation) Someone please confirm... Thanks |
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me too :)
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OK thanks kangkan...one more question
If There are two regression models i) LnY = ß1 + ß2*LnX + ui. ( Ln stands for natural log) ii) LnY = a1 + a2*LnwX + ui* (w is some positive constant) What will be the relation b/w intercept and slope coefficients? I m getting ß2=a2 and a1 = ß1 - ß2*Lnw or a1= ß1 - a2*Lnw Please cpnfirm |
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I am getting something different..let me check may b i am committing a mistake somewhere..!!!
"I don't ride side-saddle. I'm as straight as a submarine"
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In reply to this post by Dreyfus
Its ok..I got the same answers a2=b2=(dy/dx)*(x/y) and a1=b1-a2*logW.
"I don't ride side-saddle. I'm as straight as a submarine"
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In reply to this post by Dreyfus
Hey...whch chapter d problems are concerned to???? Is it something stat related ??? As d regression term is dre...plzzz reply..I cud nt get d connection..
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In reply to this post by Dreyfus
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In reply to this post by ani
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In reply to this post by Dreyfus
pls explain the first one..hw did u find erroor term?thnx
MA Economics
DSE 2014-16 |
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Sonia ...see the attached files of my workings,....IMG_20140616_212315.jpg IMG_20140616_212357.jpg
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Thnxx
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MA Economics
DSE 2014-16 |
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@vaibhav..
If There are two regression models i) LnY = ß1 + ß2*LnX + ui. ( Ln stands for natural log) ii) LnY = a1 + a2*LnwX + ui* (w is some positive constant) What will be the relation b/w intercept and slope coefficients? I m getting ß2=a2 and a1 = ß1 - ß2*Lnw or a1= ß1 - a2*Lnw hw did you derive this...pls help |
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@shefali...I hv attached my workings....IMG_20140617_002553.jpg
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In reply to this post by Shefali
let log Y=Y' and log X=X'
Now equation (1) can be written as, Y'=ß1 + ß2*X'+ ui. where ß2=Cov(X',Y')/Var(X'), ß1=mean(Y')-ß2*mean(X') Now consider equation (2), it can be written as, log Y=a1 + a2*(logX+logw)+ui* or, Y'=a1 + a2*(X'+logw)+ui* (since logY=Y' and logX=X') here a2=Cov(X'+log w,Y')/Var(X'+ log w) Now Cov(X'+log w,Y)=Cov(X',Y') And var(x'+log w)=var(x') (since variance is independent of change in origin). thus a2=Cov(X',Y')/Var(X')=ß2. Mean (X')=Mean(X')+log w. therefore a1=mean(Y')-a2*{Mean(X')+log w}, a1=mean(Y')-a2*Mean(x')-a2*log w. a1=mean(Y')-ß2*Mean(x')-ß2*log w. (since a2=ß2). thus a1=ß1-ß2*log w, (since ß1=mean(Y')-ß2*mean(X')).
"I don't ride side-saddle. I'm as straight as a submarine"
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This post was updated on Jun 17, 2014; 9:02am.
In reply to this post by Dreyfus
Guys one more ques
If There are two regression models i) expY = ß1 + ß2*expX + ui. ( exp stands for natural exponent) ii) expY' = a1 + a2*expX' + ui' (Y'= Y+w1 nd X'= X+w2) What will be the relation b/w intercept, slope coefficient and residual term? I m getting these: a2 = ß2*e^(w1-w2) a1 = ß1*e^w1 ui' = ui*e^w1 Please confirm..... |
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@vaibhav.
In that pic after the eqn 3 b line how did you get next eqn and aftr that how is B2* and B2 equal? |
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@shefali...actually its eq 2b.....I used the fact that (lnXiw -mean of lnxiw) = (lnxi + lnw - mean of lnXi -lnw)
Where mean of lnw is lnw as its a constant.......similary it applies to lnYiw also..... |
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Thank You!
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