Assume utility is increasing in wealth levels.
Consider a consumer who has the following wealth levels:
w1 = 10, w2 = 6, w3 = 4 and w4= 0. She faces two lotteries:
(0,1/2,1/2,0) and (1/2,0,0,1/2). If she is a risk-
averse, expected utility maximizer, rank and explain her preferences
over the two lotteries.
In first lottery, expected wealth is 3+2=5
And in 2nd it is 5+0=5
So she should be indifferent between the two lotteries, is that right? I am really not sure!
can't we simply say that the expected wealth is the same in both cases and the variance is lower in the first case so she would prefer the first one? like in this figure 0.5u(4)+0.5u(6)>0.5u(0)+0.5u(10)?
Well the answers you all got is correct. But the written arguments supporting the claim are not precise. The graph that Vasudha plotted is the precise reason why he will prefer lottery 1 to lottery 2. More formally, we do in the following way: a risk averse individual has a concave utility function over money. And
Expected utility from lottery 1
= 0.5 u(6) + 0.5 u(4)
= 0.5 u(0.6(10) + 0.4(0)) + 0.5 u(0.4(10) + 0.6(0))
≥ 0.5 [ 0.6 u(10) + 0.4 u(0) ] + 0.5 [ 0.4 u(10) + 0.6 u(0) ] [By concavity of u(.)]
= 0.5 u(10) + 0.5 u(0)
= Expected utility from lottery 2