Why money supply of M0 can even higher than that of M1?

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In my understanding, M2 includes M1 and M1 include M0. However, I observed that the money supply of M0 is higher than that of M1, how come?

I check the money supply here and use the "Compare" function to compare the money supply of m0 with money supply of m1:
https://tradingeconomics.com/united-states/money-supply-m0

Thanks