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Given the production function, it's clear that L = K. Since no information is available about the demand for the product, I guess we'll have to presuppose that price will be such that it will support whatever level of factor inputs employed. In that case, all 100 units of capital and 100 unites of labour will be employed.
Now, I have an elementary doubt. If a factor input must necessarily be used for production (like 100 units of capital in this case), should its cost be included in the marginal cost of the firm? Surely, the producer does not have to decide at the margin whether to employ more or less of that factor.
If the above line of reasoning is correct, rental rate of capital will be whatever drives profits to zero. In this case, it'll be (p - 2).
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