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Hi,
Since [f''(x)/f'(x)]= 1, f''(x)=f'(x).
Now since f(0)= e^2 and f(1)= e^3, I can safely guess that f(x)= e^(2+x).
Corroborating this guess is the fact that f''(x)=f'(x) when f(x)= e^(2+x).
The next steps will be easy:
1. Integral of e^(2+x) is e^(2+x), i.e., the same.
2. Putting the values (2,-2) on this integral, you get: e^4 - 1
Hence, answer is [c]
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