guys here are some problems from dornbusch chapter 3......please help me with answers.....i jus started with macro for ma entrance...
1.suppose an economy is operating at equilibrium with Y=1000.if the govt undertakes a fiscal change so that the tax rate (t) increases by 0.05 nd govt spending increases by 50,will budget surplus go up or down?why? 2.suppose govt decides to reduce transfer payment but to increase govt spending by an equal amount.....would you expect equilibrium income to rise or fall as a result of this change.why? 3.suppose aggregate demand function makes an intercept on x-axis instead of y axis and is as usual +sloped....will mpc be <1 or >1 and why?how does it fundamentally differ from a typical AD curve that makes an intercept on y-axis? |
It's been a while since I studied macro, but I'll try. 1) ΔB.S= tΔY + YΔt-ΔG YΔt-ΔG=50-50=0, ΔY= (ΔG-cYΔt)/(1-c(1-t'))= (50-0.05cY)/(1-c(1-t')) The numerator of this is 50(1-c), which is positive, as is the denominator. So ΔY is positive, and therefore ΔB.S will be positive. 2) No, because a reduction in transfer payments would reduce aggregate demand only by the marginal propensity to consume times the reduced transfer payments, whereas an increase in govt spending would show up fully in the aggregate demand. Since MPC<1, the reduced transfer payements will not fully offset the impact of increased gov spending on aggregate demand, & eqm income would increase. 3) This could happen if the autonomous consumption is negative. I think the intercept per se doesn't say anything about the MPC, but in this case if the MPC is less than 1, there would be no equilibrium because the AD line would not intersect the 45 degrees line in the 1st quadrant. So to have an equilibrium MPC must exceed 1. Mathematically, Y*= (c0+I+G)/(1-c) If the numerator (the intercept) is negative, the denominator would have to be negative if we want a positive Y*. |
In reply to this post by vishakha
hey vasudha hi:))thnx for taking tym out for my queries....
m completely convinced with ur reply to questn 2........but in questn 3 m still confused....an intercept on +ve portion of x axis may mean that in C=Ĉ+cy if we put C=0,then intercept on x axis is Y=-Ĉ/c...after that m not getting wot it could mean...as in either Ĉ is -ve or c for the term to be +ve..But its given that slope(c) is +ve so that means Ĉ is -ve ....is thats ur reasonong???????but wot wud be the economic interpretation of this unusual case??? |
as far as slope (c) is concerned i got it now.......u mean to say that for AD to intersect 45 degree line it must be steeper (ie >1)than 45 degree line(slope =1)...otherwise if its flatter (<1)then it wouldnt intersect 45 degree line in 1st quadrant.....so c>1 in this case......right????????
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Yeah that's what i meant.
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