the only twist in the question is the formation of the budget constraint of the consumer
now let m1 be production in period 1 = 0
and m2 be production in period 2 = 1
if the consumer is not requared to pay the amt of rice dat he borrows in period 1 den his budget constraint vl be x1+bx2<=1/(1+r) (discounted value of intertemporal budget constraint
but the consumer has to pay back x1(1+r) to period 2, so the discounted value of loan payback for period 2 vil be x1(1+r)/(1+r)=x1
so the new budget constraint is
x1+bx2<=1/(1+r)
+x1 (new discounted budget constraint)
now the budget constaint binds at the optimum and
x1 cancels out from the equation leaving
bx2=1/(1+r)
in period 2 the consumer vl consume x2=1
so b=1/(1+r)
r=(1-b)/b
option d
(It would be great if Amit Sir or some1 else confirms my approach)
Akshay Jain
Masters in Economics
Delhi School of Economics
2013-15