This utility func represents concave preference....when p1>p2 then consumer will exhaust all his income on x2 so demand func will be x1=0 x2=m/p2
similarly when p2>p1 then x1=m/p1 nd x2=0
Nd when prices are equal! Either x1=0 x2=m/p2 or x1=m/p1 x2=0
No! In case of perfect substitutes when prices are same consumer chooses to consume both goods but in this case he only consumes exactly one goods even when prices are same!