Discussion Problem_(11)

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Discussion Problem_(11)

duck
If f(x) is continuous for all real values of x and f(x) takes on only rational values, then, if f(1) = 1, the value of f(0) is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) None of the above.
:)
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

anonymouse
Logically, I think its (b)1, but I don't have a clear mathematical argument.
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

laracroft
In reply to this post by duck
option B
i think......
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

Sumit
In reply to this post by duck
suppose If we take the Function F(x)=-X+2,
Now,F(1)=1,f(0)=2 but as said f(x) only take rational values and domain of this function is all real number so all irrational number must belong to its domain too.....
So, as we put a irrational no. say square root of 2 then we will see that f(x) is also irrational no. which contradict given information of f(x) only take rational values...so, it can't be option c)
Also for option b) if we take F(x)=x^2-x+1 which also satisfying f(1)=1 n F(0)=1 but in this also if we put a irrational no. again we can see F(x) is also irrational which can't be true so, we can rule out option a) as well.

Now, If we take f(x)=X^2 then F(1)=1 n F(0)=0....also If we put irrational no square root of 2 in this function
we will get a rational no.
So, the answer is a) 0.
M.A Economics
Delhi School of Economics
2013-15
Email Id:sumit.sharmagi@gmail.com
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

Sinistral
Sumit wrote
Now, If we take f(x)=X^2 then F(1)=1 n F(0)=0....also If we put irrational no square root of 2 in this function
we will get a rational no.
So, the answer is a) 0.
in ur above definition take x to be cube root of 2, this function f(x) again will give an irrational number. hence option a also discarded.

basically u r ignoring the condition that f(x) is continuous for all x & f(x) is rational for all x. so f(x) has to be a constant function. since f(1) is given to be 1 ==> f(x)=1.
hence option (b)

PS: the concepts underlying these kind of questions were discussed in detail by Amit Sir in one of the threads a few days back.
---
 "You don't have to believe in God, but you should believe in The Book." -Paul ErdÅ‘s
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

anonymouse
In reply to this post by anonymouse
I found a rigorous proof. Have a look at the first answer here.
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

Sumit
In reply to this post by Sinistral
thanks sinistral for pointing this out...
M.A Economics
Delhi School of Economics
2013-15
Email Id:sumit.sharmagi@gmail.com
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Re: Discussion Problem_(11)

duck
In reply to this post by Sinistral
Hi.. :)


There are three points in the question which can easily get you to the correct answer:
(i) Function is continuous.
(ii) Takes only rational values.
These two conditions imply that f(x) is a constant function.
Because if you make it a function of "x" then, f(x) can take irrational values also.
(iii) f(1) = 1
This condition imply that f(x) must be equal to 1.
Because if we take any other constant function then, (iii) wont be satisfied.

Therefore, we've f(x)=1

Correct answer:
Option(b): f(0)=1
:)