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Ok,I will show it for first ques,the second will follow the same.
f(x)=sin^50x/(sin^50x+cos^50x)
now applying f(x)=f(a+b-x)
f(x)=cos^50x/(cos^50x+sin^50x)
add the two
2f(x)=1
so,f(x)=1/2
on solving as integral we get answer as pie/4.
same approach can be applied to 2nd ques too.
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