Neha, If the determinant is 0,
x^2 - (k-3)x + k = 0
For x to be real and to have more than 1 distinct value, the discriminant is strictly positive
ie, (k-3)^2 - 4k > 0
or k^2 - 10k + 9 > 0
or (k-9)(k-1) > 0
This would mean the least positive value of k is 1, right?
Yes I did get a/(a+b) for labor supplied. I don't know 'why' in the economic sense :/ . Mathematically, I think it could perhaps be because the nature of the 'budget constraint' is such that, irrespective of the wage, the Leisure intercept is a constant, and hence, the tangency between the utility indifference curves and the budget lines always occurs at the same value of labor supply (or leisure preference) but consumption is shifted up or down depending on the value of wage. Perhaps because the S.E and I.E are equal and cancel each other out?
With ref to question 8 part (b), i am getting Y= A*Theta*[a+(a+b)]^Theta + Investment.
The way the i have done is i have found out labor demand function by equating MPL =real wage,, and hence found out w =A*Theta*[a+(a+b)]^(1-Theta).. Since labor supply is fixed, equilibrium labor quantity will be a+(a+b) so C= A*Theta*[a+(a+b)]^Theta, ergo Y= A*Theta*[a+(a+b)]^Theta + Investment. Any thoughts around it?