Ram, just a thought.
Wouldn't it suffice to say that any allocation of the form
(a2/a2+b2, y1) for P1 and (b2/a2+b2, y2) for P2 such that y1 + y2 = 2 is a P.O solution? Unless asked for a competitive equilibrium, any allocation of the above form would be optimal?
Suppose that you are testing H0 : p =1/2
against H1 : p =2/3 for a binomial variable X with n = 3. What values of X would you assign
to the critical region if you wish to have Prob[Type I Error] ≤1/8
and you wish to minimize Prob[Type II Error]?
You will minimize the Probability of Type II Error if you choose to reject the null if X takes value 3 and accept the null if X takes the value either 0, 1 or 2. Now think about it why? And provide a Mathematical proof.
P(Type 1 error) = P(Reject Ho|p = 1/2) = P(X > Some critical value | given p = 1/2) and this is <= 1/8
ie P(X > Xc | p=1/2) <= 1/8
For the present binomial distribution with n = 3, this is satisfied only for X = 3.
Hence Xc = 3 and accept NULL for X = 0,1,2. Is this correct? I'm not sure I understand how Type II error features here, sir.
guys there was a question in the dse entrance in which 2 players had the options 'swap' and 'retain'. does anyone remember the exact question? can we plz discuss it?
First i got the probability distribution of X in both situations-when p=1/2 and when p=2/3.
When p=1/2,
X P(X)
0 1/8
1 3/8
2 3/8
3 1/8
From here it's clear that to have P(type I error)=<1/8 we must reject the null when x=0, or alternatively, when x=3. The choice b/w the two critical values will be determined by the second consideration, that of minimizing P(type 2 error).
When p=2/3
X P(X)
0 1/27
1 6/27
2 12/27
3 8/27
From here it's clear that the probability of type 2 error is minimized when we decide to reject the null when x=3.