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thanks for replying vasudha:)
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In reply to this post by neha
Well i find even this line of reasoning to be correct
![]() Sorry i misunderstood it when u earlier made the same point ![]()
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In reply to this post by n.saish
@saish ,, if i have understood your doubt correctly, what you are saying is the case when all xi's are less than z is missing out while writing down the DF. I did include this case as well in DF.This is to be included because we are finding out the probability that the second highest is less than z. (There may be case when even the highest x is less than z)
so F(z) = (z/a)^n + n * (a-z)/a * (z/a)^(n-1) (z/a)^n = prob that all xis are less than z (including the second highest) or think like prob that the second highest is less than z (including the highest one is also less than z) n * (a-z)/a * (z/a)^(n-1) =prob that the second highest is less than z (the highest one is greater than z). hope it helps better :) |
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In reply to this post by Preet
never mind,, and thanks a lot:)
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this is regarding question no 28 of ISI 2007
http://economicsentrance.weebly.com/uploads/1/1/0/5/1105777/msqe2007.pdf I think all the options are correct. but the answer keys says option d. and of the same paper, what do you think p-q would be? i think it will be 1 or -1. |
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neha, statement A is correct. u don't hv to look any further. this makes statement D incorrect. that's what v had to find out- the incorrect statement.
and which other question r u asking? |
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oh yeah,, i didn't read the question carefully,,, and the other one is question 4.
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In reply to this post by neha
No no... Thats not what I'm saying.... See the method you're following is formulating a df and then differentiating to get the pdf right... I completely agree with each step of this method...
Now I'm trying out a different method of writing the pdf directly with the reasoning that Pr( that a selected no would be the second highest) = (N-1)*Pr(that n-2 nos will be smaller than it)*Pr(that 1 would be greater)... So I guess I'm missing out something that is included when you do it by the first method.... Hope you get my doubt... |
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but saish the pdf does not give u the probability. u cant obtain the pdf directly.
On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 1:07 PM, Saish [via Discussion forum] <[hidden email]> wrote: No no... Thats not what I'm saying.... See the method you're following is formulating a df and then differentiating to get the pdf right... I completely agree with each step of this method... |
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In reply to this post by anon_econ
but i find statement c as incorrect. there are atleast two pts. whose is distance is less than or equal to root 2 is true but as statement c says distance is less than root 2 , (which is not necessary) , statement c is false. as not all statements are incorrect so d is incorrect as well . so, should not the answer be both c and d .
please tell me if there is anything wrong in statement i m making about "Statement c". |
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komal, how do u show that v can always find 2 points whose distance is less than or equal to root 2?
On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 1:10 PM, komal [via Discussion forum] <[hidden email]> wrote: but i find statement c as incorrect. there are atleast two pts. whose is distance is less than or equal to root 2 is true but as statement c says distance is less than root 2 , (which is not necessary) , statement c is false. as not all statements are incorrect so d is incorrect as well . so, should not the answer be both c and d . |
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In reply to this post by anon_econ
@ saish,, thats true i believe,(what vasudha is saying) PDF just gives the ordinates,, not probability.. think about the case when x follows U(0,0.5) where f(x) = 2 which cant be a value of probability.
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In reply to this post by neha
or u saying it's either 1 or -1 bcoz p^2-q^2=(p-q)(p+q)?
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GOT IT!!!
I forgot that integral of the pdf should be equal to 1... So pdf = C*(n-1)*[(x/a)^(n-2)]*[(a-x)/a] Now integral pdf=1 we get C=n/a!!! So now when we calculate the expectation we get the same answer..... |
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In reply to this post by anon_econ
@vasudha
what i am saying is p-q will either be -1 or 1. what do u think? |
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In reply to this post by anon_econ
p-q wil be 1 right?
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In reply to this post by neha
ca't be -1 as p=q is alwz =ve so -1 wil lead to a negative no.. tk it as prime no. = 1* no. itself , so p+q is d no. n p-q is 1
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In reply to this post by neha
i mean p+q is alwaz +ve..
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In reply to this post by anurag
it can be -1 too, i think.
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In reply to this post by anon_econ
Neha, for Q4,
Now it is factorized as (p+q)(p-q) = 1 * A for some A. so either p+q = 1 or p-q = 1 If p+q = 1, then p = 1-q and this violates the condition that p and q are positive integers. So p-q = 1 But we could also factorize as (p+q)(p-q) = -|1| * -|A| for some prime A. Here again, p+q can't be -1 since both are positive integers. p+q can't be -|A| either for the same reason. So p-q = 1 only seems like an acceptable answer, no? |
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